monstrous lie
Infinitely Baffled
... the proven overspend was around £75k, so 10% ... This was considerably smaller than the Vote Leave budget of £7million, so the actual effect of the proven overspend, in context, can't necessarily be shown to invalidate the result.
We're talking here about a relatively small overspend. The idea that it influenced the vote is ludicrous,
I think you need to be careful about drawing this kind of conclusion. I don't believe it is possible to determine any correlationship between amount of spend and effect of spend. Do you think that it would be possible, for example, to lease a coach, have it sign-written with a dishonest but effective message, and pay for it to be driven to campaign rallies around the country for a couple of weeks, all within a budget of £75k? I certainly think it would be. The spend is very modest, but the effect was quite likely very large. I'm aware that this particular example was actually the other Leave campaign's doing, but the point is clear enough. And yes, I agree you obviously can't say that it was the illegal spend that bought the highly effective advertising - the money is all fungible - so it would be nonsensical to hypothecate the overspend against any specific outcome. My point, therefore, is that there should be no requirement to demonstrate any sort of causal link, or indeed any sort of proportionality, between the illegally spent funds and the campaign's outcome. It is meaningless to try. If it has been shown that the campaign was conducted dishonestly, illegally, and potentially criminally, it is then perfectly legitimate to ask "how would people have voted if the campaigns had been conducted honestly?"
ML