I don't think so. Take any valve as an example. All such valves, of whatever a manufacture,r must meet the same specification for the basic parameters. The original spec for the valve had a certain tolerance, which is quite wide.
Most people who try valve rolling have one or two examples of each manufacturer, so I alsways ask the question:- If the change of valves from, say, Mullard to Telefunken (or whatever) results in a different sound, is that due to the change between Mullard and Telefunken or just sample variations between the individual valves?
In other words, it would need 100 Mullard valves and 100 Telefunken valves, all from different batches before there was any statistical validity to the belief that MUllard valves sound different to Telefunkens.
Then, there's the even more fundamental question as to whether different valves actually do operate differently. Valve rollers are seldom objectivists, so we've not seen detauled measurements of what's different between a, say, Mullard and a Telefunken in terms of distortion, frequency response, noise or whatever. Even if we did have such measurements, would they have any statistical validity given the pretty wide difference between valves?
All I can say, is that it's possible that one individual Mullard sounds different to one individual Telefunken, but that it's equally possible that another Mullard valve might be no different to that same Telefunken.
It's interesting (to me) that in the '50s and '60s, when valves were at the zenith, there was never any suggestion in HiFi reviews that one manufacturer's valves sounded different to another's. Perhaps then, when valves were ubiquitous, people understood about sample variability.
S.